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PEU. 256 and 426 says that
In most subordinate clauses, we use past tenses to express 'unreal' or conditional ideas:
If you asked me nicely, I might get you a drink.(second conditional)
But why not "If you had asked me nicely, I would have got you a drink."?(third conditional) It seems like one asked the other in the past. And what is the difference between those two sentences?
Start by dismissing the ‘first / second / third conditional’ notion from consideration—that is a ‘baby rule’ for introducing beginners to conditional constructions.
The sentence given in your quote may mean two different things: it may be (1) a tentative (hypothetical) conditional in the present tense with future reference, or (2) an open (possible) conditional in the past tense with future-in-past reference. This ambiguity is resolved in the discourse context.
(2) I told you then that if you asked me nicely, I might get you a drink. —Here the past-form verbs do imply past reference; the sentence represents backshifted If you ask me nicely I may get you a drink, which implies that at the time of utterance you regarded the condition and consequence as future possibilities.
Note, by the way, that the pre-backshift present-tense version may equally well be expressed as If you ask me nicely I might get you a drink if the MAY in the consequence clause represents possibility rather than permission. In that case, it will retain the same form, might, when backshifted. The use of modals is very complicated: it has been constantly changing for hundreds of years, and we are in the middle of what appears to be an acceleration of the change.
Your rewrite, however, will bear only one interpretation, a past counterfactual:
†As user3169 and Lucien Sava point out, this is the correct past participle of get in BrE but must be gotten in AmE.
user3169 is correct that "If you had asked me nicely, I would have gotten you a drink" is correct in Standard English. It sounds natural to my (American) ear.
But especially in informal conversation, "If you had asked me nicely, I would have got you a drink" is close enough that most people either would not notice, or would let it slide. Many Americans say it this way. It is only slightly incorrect. The fact that this usage seemed natural to you probably means that you are becoming fluent in contemporary English.
The usages of "get", "got", and "have" are currently changing. The formal rules for using these words are about 50 years out of date. In another 50 years, these formal rules might be as out of date as the rules for "who" and "whom".
