0

In this following definition does the verb ''have'' play in causative meaning? or what?

Please, simplify it to me...

for oneself (idiom): rather than have someone else (do or share something) She did not like just hearing of other's travels. She wanted to see Europe for herself.

Source: (Merriam-Webster.com)

1

1 Answer 1

0

It is the causative sense of have. A definition of this (from wiktionary) is

cause to, by a command, request or invitation.

Here it would normally mean that one has asked someone to do something and they did it. So, to do something "for oneself" means the opposite of "asking somebody else to do it for you".

0

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .