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Most adjectives in English have the same form, regardless of whether the noun (or noun phrase) being modified is singular or plural. For example:

  • Mars is red.
  • Mars and Jupiter are red planets.
  • Violets are blue.
  • She bought a blue flower from the florist.

Are there any exceptions to this rule?

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No adjective has grammatical number. Indeed, having grammatical number is one of the defining properties of a noun.

There are a number of nouns that can be used attributively and in some cases these can be plural. But this is not for agreement with a plural noun, but because the modifying noun itself is plural, or because the plural form is generally more common

Workers union / data processor.

In some contexts you may use the French plural forms of adjectives for borrowed words. It would not be incorrect, and some would consider it more sophisticated, to write,

Three bourgeoises women".

But the modification for the feminine plural is not required in English. The same goes for other borrowed terms from other languages. The use of a plural adjective to agree with the noun is optional. For words that are more integrated into English, the plural is much much rarer. Eg. fausses for the fem plural of faux is unused (partly because it is rare to apply "faux" to people anyway)

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    I have been studying and speaking French since 1962, and I would never, ever write 'Three bourgeoises women'. I might happily say or write, e.g. 'Three bourgeoises came into the café', since the feminine ending makes 'women' redundant. Sep 24, 2022 at 12:33
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    In short, 'three bourgeois women' or 'three bourgeoises'. Sep 24, 2022 at 12:47
  • @MichaelHarvey — Your comments would make a good answer.
    – Jasper
    Sep 25, 2022 at 16:12

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