Is there any difference between these 2 sentences? Do they mean exactly the same?
The majority of men does not have a moustache.
A majority of men do not have a moustache.
I am using a singular verb in the first example, and a plural verb in the second example, because this seems to be the rule, though maybe it is a wrong rule:
P.S. The question is derived from the below sources, which provide inconsistent, unclear, hesitant, inconclusive answers. Let us try to solve it once and for all!