0

I know we don't use "Pay to someone," but is there a reason? In terms of grammar, it seems correct.

Pay (transitive verb) + someone (direct object) Pay (intransitive verb) + to someone (prepositional phrase)

We say "Climb the mountain," and "Climb up the mountain" both.

Why don't we use "Pay someone," and "Pay to someone" both?

*I am asking this question because there may be something I don't know that may help improve my English.

Thank you in advance.

2 Answers 2

2

The verb "pay" can have two objects. Perhaps called direct object and indirect object in some descriptions. But you are not required to use both.

You can say "Pay Tom $5".
You can say "Pay Tom."
You can say "Pay $5."
You can say "Pay."
Do not say "Pay $5 Tom."

But use the "to" instead of the indirect object usually after the direct object:
You can say "Pay $5 to Tom."
Perhaps you could say "Pay to Tom $5," but that would be unusual.

I guess if the $5 is replaced by something long and complicated, then it is OK:
"Pay to Tom the amount you would have paid if he were not your brother-in-law."

1

Pay is a ditransitive verb like give and offer, so it takes two common arrangements of arguments.

John gave the book to Jane. Jane paid £5 to John

John gave Jane the book. Jane paid John £5.

But unlike give, we are not necessarily concerned with the direct object (the amount), and so we can omit it.

Jane paid John.

Show works the same way: even though what is being shown is important, we can omit it when it has already been mentioned:

Jane showed Helen [the picture].

But with give we cannot omit the direct object even if it has already been mentioned:

*John gave Jane.

*John gave to Jane.

are both ungrammatical. We have to say

John gave it to Jane.

Oddly, you can turn this round, but only if you use a pronoun for the recipient:

John gave her it.

but

?John gave Jane it.

is not acceptable to most English speakers.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .