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(1) I have as much money as you do VS (2) I have money as much as you do

I can guess that the sentence (1) and (2) means a little bit different. I'm sure that (1) makes sense What I want to know is [does the second sentence make any sense for the native?] If so, what is different between the sentence (1) and (2)?

Could you tell me which is more natural expression for the native?

4 Answers 4

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Expression 1 is correct. Expression 2 is incorrect.

There are some ways of punctuating expression 2 that would make it grammatically correct, but you probably shouldn't be worrying about them as a learner.

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  • Thank you so much :) Your kindness makes me so happy.
    – Darling
    Oct 3, 2022 at 17:39
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The first sentence means that I have the same or more money as you. If that is the intended meaning then it is preferred.

The second sentence is awkward at best. I'm not absolutely sure it is grammatically correct or incorrect. Consider the following alternative.

  • I have lunch as much as you.

This would mean that I have lunch in some way the same as you. Perhaps I have lunch as often as you. Or perhaps I have a plate with food in front of me just as you have a plate of food in front of you. Or, in the other direction, maybe neither of us has lunch. You complained about it and I said we were in the same condition.

It is awkward (and possibly grammatically wrong) because the "as much as" comparison seems wrong. Usually "as much as" would refer to quantity. I have the same amount of money as you. But putting it in the sentence 2 form puts the comparison on "you" instead of money. It seems to be saying something about you having money instead of the amount.

Sentence 2 is awkward even in these contrived circumstance. Most native speakers would not say it that way. They would say "I have been paid just as you have." Or if we were both unpaid then they would say "I have not been paid just as you have not." And so on.

So sentence 2 might be reasonable if you wanted to say that you had been paid the at the same time as me. Or, in the other direction, you didn't get paid and complained, and I said "I have money as much as you." meaning that I was in the same situation. If it was something like that then you probably should choose a different comparison. Such as "at the same time" for example.

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  • Thank you so much for your kindness. I really appreciate it. Can I ask one more thing? When I'd like to say for the case of "property" ( ex. I have $ 100 million as fortune and you also have $ 100 million ) If I say like this...[I have money as much as you do], does it make sense to the native? and..do you guys actually express like that?
    – Darling
    Oct 3, 2022 at 17:37
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Sentence 1 is correct. Sentence 2 is not.

The structure for using "as much" with a noun is: [ "as much" + noun + "as" + subject + aux ].

The structure you use in sentence 2 looks like the structure for "as much" with a verb: [ verb + "as much as" + subject + aux ], as in, "I study as much as you do."

In your context, you're comparing the amount of money, which is a noun, so we have to use the first structure.

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  • I have loads of flowers in my garden, much as you do [have them]. i.e. just like you have them.

much as you do is idiomatic for just like you do.

  • He has cars, much as I do.

Collins Dictionary

Often used as an adverb: He complains, much as you do.

So, it is grammatical but it's meaning is different from the comparative: I have as much money as you do.

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