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I know the basic rules and structure of second and third and mixed conditionals. I know that in the main clause of them we should use would, could, or might.

But I have come across this sentence in a text which is written by a non-native (but expert in English) writer and I suspect whether it is a grammatical error or it is an other structure of conditional that I do not know.

If I had passed the previous exam, there was no need to retake it.

Is it correct?

I think it is better (or the only correct way) to say:

If I had passed the previous exam, there would be no need to retake it.

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    The accurate way is your second one. People do struggle with conditionals....
    – Lambie
    Oct 12, 2022 at 18:14

2 Answers 2

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Grammatical, yes. But does it have the meaning you want? Unclear.

The original sentence there is a real conditional with a past perfect condition clause, and a simple past result clause, which is fine. The meaning is a bit odd, but it can apply. For instance, let's say I take an exam, then a teacher tells me to take the exam again, so I do. Then I hear that I might have passed the first one. In that context, it makes sense to reflect on the situation and say, "If I had passed the previous exam, there was no need to retake it. Oh well."

Your second sentence is an unreal conditional with a conditional clause in the simple past time, and a result clause in the present. It roughly means, "I did not pass the previous exam, so now I have to retake it."

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Here's what I would write:

Since I passed the previous exam, there was no need to retake it.

I would not use a conditional there as there is no condition in the idea.

VERSUS 1) or 2) or 3)

  1. If I had passed the previous exam, there wouldn't be a need to retake it.
    Talking about the past. He flunked it. He needs to retake it at some point in the present.
  2. If I had passed the previous exam, there wouldn't have been a need to retake it. Talking about the past, he already retook it.

For me if signals a conditional of one kind or another, and I don't think that first sentence requires it.

Also, if the guy doesn't know if he passed if or not, he can use the following:

  1. If I passed the exam, there would be no need to retake it.
    Talking in the present time. He doesn't know if he passed it or not.
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  • Saying "since I passed the previous exam" means I know that I passed the previous exam. But as Gotube said, what if we aren't sure if we have actualy passed the first exam or not, but the teacher forced us to take another exam for an unknown reason and we have already taken the second one? Still don't you think saying "If I had passed the previous exam, there was no need to retake it." is the best way to say that? I think non of your examples reflects this condition.
    – alireza
    Oct 13, 2022 at 7:16
  • @alireza I already said, no, I don't accept that. Because then, it would become: As I passed or since I passed it, there was no need to retake if. OR If I hadn't passed it, there would have been a reason to retake it. OR If I had passed it, there wouldn't have been a reason to retake it.
    – Lambie
    Oct 13, 2022 at 14:52

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