It is interesting that previous conservative thinkers have suggested that the whole concept of parliamentary sovereignty is itself a product of the self-denying ordinance of the common law. Consequently, they suggested that it was open to a subsequent, more robust judiciary, confi dent in its own position and powers within the developing constitution, to reassert its equality with the other two elements of the polity.
Source: p 38, The English Legal System 2012-2013, Gary Slapper
The linked definition above, referring to 1645, doesn't cohere with the context. So I tried self-denying, but I'm still confused by the idea of an ordinance denying itself something. How does this make sense?