This question is raised on the basis of a bad parsing of an otherwise unproblematic sentence, it seems.
From a New York Times article:
“We don’t live in a utopia,” he said in a 2002 interview with the Japanese magazine Flash. “Something was bound to happen.”
The paragraph ends and the next comes up with
More soon did.
The meaning is clear enough, and on the same ground the omission of the subject (presumably, "it") is motivated. What enables this instance of ellipsis seems to be the displacement of "more soon". But why is it "more soon" instead of "sooner" here, and will this omission still be legit if it is replaced by "sooner"?