Is it grammatically correct to use inversion subsequent to unlike? As an example, is the following sentence correct?

Furthermore, unlike method A, does method B not require any additional processing.

Besides, please consider this example: "Because of the net situation, no longer can I find a person on app A". No longer is a common word whereby one can use inversion- there is no doubt about it whatsoever. The original sentence is; No longer I can find a person on app A. To do inversion, can goes before the subject, I, and the verb remains in its place (This is how inversion with models is used as much as I know). What's your opinion in relation to this one?

Thanks in advance

  • 3
    Actually, I would not say that "No longer I can find a person on app A" is the "original sentence" at all. You can say "I can no longer find..." but not "No longer I can".
    – stangdon
    Dec 18, 2022 at 20:06
  • @stangdon Thanks for the answer.
    – Erfan Brv
    Dec 18, 2022 at 22:49

1 Answer 1


This inversion is rather flamboyant and "raised". Your example (a technical description of methods of data processing) should use plain forms of English. It would be natural to say

Because of the net situation, I can no longer find a person on app A.

The inverted form isn't wrong, but it is marked. You need a definite reason to use the inverted form. "Because I can" isn't enough.

Now "No longer" can allow inversion, but "Unlike method A" does not allow inversion. So the only grammatical form is

Unlike method A, method B does not require additional processing.

If you invert and produce "does not method B require..." or "does method B not require" you have formed a syntactic question, and it will be interpreted as such, which will produce an ungrammatical sentence.

  • Many thanks for painting a detailed picture.
    – Erfan Brv
    Dec 18, 2022 at 22:47

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