3

Second, the consumers with most money have the greatest pull in the market. As a result, resources may be devoted to producing luxuries for the rich to the exclusion of necessities for the poor. While this is really brought about by the unequal distribution of wealth and income rather than by the market system, the fact is that the latter tends to produce, and even to increase, such inequality.

Why isn't at used, or some other preposition? What are the similarities and differences?

Source: p 118, Mastering the National Admissions Test for Law, Mark Shepherd

Improve this question
  • 3
    I think the to could be changed to at and the sentence's meaning would stay the same. There are some cases where more than one preposition can be used; I think you've found one of them. – J.R.♦ Sep 8 '14 at 8:36
1

to the exclusion of someone or something is a set phrase; an idiom, if you will. It's always used with to. Check out this dictionary entry: http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/to-the-exclusion-of

Improve this answer

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.