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Are there equally grammatically correct:
And
Note that I haven't used used "got" because the question isn't about it.
Is it at least gramatically not incorrect to use "have" as the main verb in a question, instead of "do"?
I mean primarily British English, written style.
Forming questions by inverstion with "has" is mandatory when "has" is an auxiliary verb:
He has eaten the apple → Has he eaten the apple.
It is understandable but considered dated or archaic when "has" is the main verb.
He has a ball → Has he a ball? (* dated, marked, odd)
He has a ball → Does he have a ball? (* normal, plain)
So "Have you a bottle of wine?" is correct grammar, but marked and dated in British English.
English speakers would need to have a reason to use this construction. "Because I can" is not enough. "Because I need it for the poetry to scan" is a good reason.
English speakers would need to have a reason to use this construction. "Because I can" is not enough. - who will I have to provide that reason to? Am I obliged? In a written form? Verified by notary?
