1

cambridge.org:
(1) She has dollhouse filled with miniature furniture.
Why is it possible to write "dollhouse" without "a"?

my variant:
(2) She has a dollhouse filled with miniature furniture.
What is the difference between (1) and (2)?

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  • 5
    I believe the example in the Cambridge Dictionary is a mistake. Could be a typo for 'dollhouses'. Your variant is correct. Note: 'dollhouse' is US English. In British English, we would use 'doll's house'. Dec 30, 2022 at 18:20
  • 2
    Yes, this is a simple mistake by the dictionary. Regrettable but it happens. I don't see how a useful answer that explains why and how could be written, so I vote to close.
    – James K
    Dec 30, 2022 at 19:53
  • @JamesK, Imagine a few years from now, when this question is closed and these comments have disappeared. Someone else discovers the same typo, looks here finds this entry, and then is frustrated because it has no answer for them. ¶ Michael Harvey's comment would have made a useful answer. (Far too many questions on this site are answered only in the comments.) Dec 31, 2022 at 14:20
  • @RayB The question will have been deleted by the inactive question bot by then. But you are still free to write an answer if you feel it is useful.
    – James K
    Dec 31, 2022 at 15:40
  • 2
    The error has now been corrected. Dec 7, 2023 at 13:12

1 Answer 1

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Either of these would be correct:

  • She has a dollhouse filled with miniature furniture.
  • She has dollhouses filled with miniature furniture.

The most obvious explanation for "She has dollhouse …" is that it was simply a typographical error on the part of the publishers.

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