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Can "by which" be equivalent to "for which", for example in this quote?

Stripped of this anthropological association, the word on is indistinguishable from the word ‘under’ or the word ‘beside’. Even if the universal form of space is that without which there would be for us no bodily space, it is not that by which there is one. [Taken from: Part 1, Ch. 3 in Merleau-Ponty, M., & Smith, C. (2002). Phenomenology of Perception. Routledge. (p. 116)]

Furthermore, may I replace "by which" with "for which" under any circumstance without changing the meaning of what's stated/asked?

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    No, you can't treat by which and for which as interchangeable in the cited context. I'm not sure you can ever do that with the 2-word collocations, but there may be other contexts where the choice of by or for makes little or no difference. Specifically in this context, we're told the "universal form of space" (whatever that means! :) is not what gives us "bodily space" (again, meaningless to me). But for which would mean the "universal form of space" doesn't have its own "bodily space". It's hardly a suitable text for learners, though, Feb 2, 2023 at 18:19
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    No, by which I mean you can't replace one with the other and still get the same meaning or even a meaningful sentence. Feb 2, 2023 at 18:22
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    @PeterJennings: Yes, for which I'll give your comment an upvote! :) Feb 2, 2023 at 18:36
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    @JohnLawler without which this list is incomplete. Feb 3, 2023 at 11:40
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    @JohnLawler: To my ear, this text is barely "English" in the first place. So I have to put on my "programmer's hat" and treat it as a bunch of algebraic symbols glued together by a few "operators" (prepositions and such). If we change OP's highlighted element to repeat previously-used without which, we get even if it's something] without which [we wouldn't have bodily space], it is NOT something without which there is bodily space. (Which imho means even less! :) Feb 3, 2023 at 14:16

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