0

"I haven’t enjoyed myself so much for a long time." [from a dictionary]

The sentence above is clearly negated by haven't(have not).

Does this sentence mean

  1. the person has not enjoyed himself until now (for example, he only studies), or
  2. the person has already enjoyed himself a lot but this happened after having passed a long time without enjoyment?

My dictionary translation is #2.

1 Answer 1

3

"I haven't enjoyed myself so much" suggests that I have enjoyed myself, but to a smaller degree. The entire sentence is saying that while I have enjoyed myself, it has been a long time since I enjoyed myself as much as this (so much).

Compare "It hasn't been as hot as this for a long time". If it is a 45 degree summer day in Wagga Wagga, this would be saying that the temperature has not reached 45 degrees for a long time. There may well have been days of 35 degrees or more, which would still be hot days, just not "as hot as this".

6
  • so much=as much as this?
    – gomadeng
    Feb 22, 2023 at 11:35
  • 1
    @BEBYGONES Yes, exactly.
    – stangdon
    Feb 22, 2023 at 11:56
  • Why there is no such explanation in a dictionary?
    – gomadeng
    Feb 22, 2023 at 12:07
  • @stangdon What if I say "I haven't enjoyed myself much for a long time."? (without 'to')
    – gomadeng
    Feb 22, 2023 at 13:26
  • 1
    @BEBYGONES Dictionaries do list this meaning. so: to an indicated or suggested extent or degree "I haven't enjoyed myself much" (I assume you meant "without so") would mean that I have not enjoyed myself very much at all, not just "to this degree".
    – stangdon
    Feb 22, 2023 at 15:04

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .