0

I’ve done made a black tea with a slice of lime on it .

it appeared in a group chat that include many non-English native speakers and seems odd to me.

since "done" can be a transitive verb, that means it can have an object.

but "made a black tea " doesn't seem to be an object of "done".

Is "made a black tea" the object? or does "made" contribute to the perfect aspect?

1 Answer 1

2

This use of "done" (the "perfective done") is common in dialects like African-American Vernacular English (AAVE) and in various idioms derived from those dialects. It serves primarily as a marker of the perfect aspect, but in this sentence that would be redundant, since the "have" in "I've" already makes it perfect. But the "perfective done" usually also implies that the action was recent, which is its function here. So the meaning is:

I’ve just made a black tea with a slice of lime on it.

(Alternatively, if this was from a non-native speaker, it could just be a mistake, likely the result of an attempt to add do-support to a verb that already has an auxiliary.)

4
  • Is "made a black tea" the object? or does "made" contribute to the perfect aspect?
    – novice
    Mar 3, 2023 at 6:42
  • No, because "done" isn't a verb. In standard English "done" is the past participle form of the verb "do". It has an additional adverbal sense in AAV. The verb is "made". But I think this is more likely to be a simple mistake by a non-native speaker, which only co-incidentally fits an AAV idiom.
    – James K
    Mar 3, 2023 at 6:55
  • 2
    Also "on it" seems odd, since normally the lime would be in the tea.
    – James K
    Mar 3, 2023 at 6:56
  • In this use in AAVE, "done" is an auxiliary verb.
    – alphabet
    Mar 3, 2023 at 12:25

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .