This is about indirect reported speech:
Before she became queen, she had always said that she does not want to marry.
Looks logical to me (since the time has already been introduced with past perfect), but is not correct.Before she became queen, she had always said that she did not want to marry.
Sounds good to me, but why? It surely is correct but shouldn't the 'did not want' be in the past perfect tense?Before she became queen, she had always said that she had not wanted to marry.
Sounds a bit odd to me, but why? Logically, in terms of the 'timeframe', it seems correct.
Other example (from a worksheet)
Before John had lunch, he had run 10 km and had done the laundry.
Is it correct that in this example past perfect is twice in the 2nd part of the sentence because it is to different events? Whereas in the sentence
Before she became queen, she had always said that she did not want to marry.
the part she did not want to marry* is what she said, hence not a separate event?
