If we look at matters in this way, there can be no more question of regarding the theory of sense as quite independent of the theory of Meaning than there is of regarding the semantic relations between words and the world as quite independent of the thoughts and propositional attitudes associated by competent speakers with those words.
If I abbreviate this sentence as 'there can be no more question of A than B', is this sentence mean 'If we look at matters in this way, A is not flawed very much while B is flawed'? Any help will be appreciated!
Evans, G. 1982: The Varieties of Reference. Oxford: Oxford University Press,p.13