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If we look at matters in this way, there can be no more question of regarding the theory of sense as quite independent of the theory of Meaning than there is of regarding the semantic relations between words and the world as quite independent of the thoughts and propositional attitudes associated by competent speakers with those words.

If I abbreviate this sentence as 'there can be no more question of A than B', is this sentence mean 'If we look at matters in this way, A is not flawed very much while B is flawed'? Any help will be appreciated!

Evans, G. 1982: The Varieties of Reference. Oxford: Oxford University Press,p.13

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  • If there is no more question of A than of B, that means A and B are equally flawed. I can no more give you a million dollars than I can fly to the Moon (I can't do either thing).
    – Michael Harvey
    Mar 9 at 7:19
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    "We can't regard A as true any more than we can regard B as true."
    – Kate Bunting
    Mar 9 at 8:55
  • @KateBunting I think that I'm reading it opposite to how you are. I read it as "A is not more questionable than B is". That suggests that A might be less questionable, i.e. more true than B.
    – MarcInManhattan
    Mar 9 at 13:20

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there can be no more question of regarding the theory of sense as quite independent of the theory of Meaning than there is of regarding the semantic relations between words and the world as quite independent of the thoughts and propositional attitudes associated by competent speakers with those words.

The structure of the sentence

There can be no more question of X than there is of Y.

This implies that

1. there is no question of Y (as has presumably been shown in a previous sentence)

2. X is as unquestionable as Y (as has also been shown earlier)

3. Therefore both things are unquestionable

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