1

ldoceonline.com:
(1a) Your adviser’s experience is there to be tapped. — "NP is there to-infinitive" is odd to me in this sentence.
my variant:
(1b) There is your adviser’s experience to be tapped. — "There is NP" is that construction I'm used to seeing.
What is the difference between (1a) and (1b)?

my sentences:
(2a) A problem is there to solve.
(2b) There is a problem to solve.
What is the difference between (2a) and (2b)?

What is the difference between "NP is there to-infinitive" and "there is NP to-infinitive"?
(NP = noun phrase)

I know that "there" in "there is NP to-infinitive" can be locative or existential.
By this analogy, "there" in "NP is there to-infinitive" can also be locative or existential — is it right or not?

Improve this question

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1

"NP is there" is always locative.

Sentence (1a) means that your advisor's experience is (metaphorically) close to you and readily available, allowing you to access it.

Sentence (1b) just means that their experience exists.

Improve this answer
1
  • And (2a) means 'a problem exists for the purpose of being solved'.
    – Kate Bunting
    Commented Mar 16, 2023 at 9:30

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .