(1a) Your adviser’s experience is there to be tapped. — "NP is there to-infinitive" is odd to me in this sentence.
my variant:
(1b) There is your adviser’s experience to be tapped. — "There is NP" is that construction I'm used to seeing.
What is the difference between (1a) and (1b)?

my sentences:
(2a) A problem is there to solve.
(2b) There is a problem to solve.
What is the difference between (2a) and (2b)?

What is the difference between "NP is there to-infinitive" and "there is NP to-infinitive"?
(NP = noun phrase)

I know that "there" in "there is NP to-infinitive" can be locative or existential.
By this analogy, "there" in "NP is there to-infinitive" can also be locative or existential — is it right or not?

1 Answer 1


"NP is there" is always locative.

Sentence (1a) means that your advisor's experience is (metaphorically) close to you and readily available, allowing you to access it.

Sentence (1b) just means that their experience exists.

  • And (2a) means 'a problem exists for the purpose of being solved'. Mar 16 at 9:30

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