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'You look exhausted.''Yes, I was walking non-stop until 6 o'clock.'

Why it is not "Have been walking' instead of was walking . It is because he has been walking that he looks exhausted. I don't understand the logic here. Can it be because there is a precise time? 6 o'clock that indicates that it belongs definitively to the past

This is from a test " English grammar" .

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The action is in the past and an explicit time is given for the action (at least an end time is given) So the event is in the past, and the connection to the present is broken "I have been walking" would indicate (without further context) that the walking continued until the present.

A past perfect would have been possible "I had been walking until 6 o'clock" But it isn't required as there is no other context to indicate a past perfect.

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