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In this following context, is the phrase "no other (cause) than" another form of "none other than"?

Do they mean the same thing?

Should I use these two interchangeably?

Could I do as: 'It can have nothing other than....' like changing of the phrase as: 'no other one than' > 'none other than'?

Context:

This differencecannot be without reason, as it can be noticed at any time, and in any being.It can have no other cause than the pre-natal kamma-process.

Source: P. 40 "The Fundamentals of Buddhism" by Nyanatiloka Mahathera

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    "None other than" tends to be used for people, while "no other than" tends to be used for things, although it's more idiom than grammar.
    – ralph.m
    May 29 at 4:28

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"None other than [person]" is an idiomatic phrase with a specific meaning. It is used to express surprise that the person has appeared in the context.

For example:

You'll never believe who I saw in the supermarket! It was none other than multiple Grammy award-winning singer Beyonce!

According to Collins dictionary, you may also use "no other than" like this and it can be used for an inanimate object, but personally I've only ever heard it said about people.

This is entirely different to saying something like "there was no other person there than me". That is just said to highlight that you were alone, and you could just as easily say that about an object.

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