2

thefreedictionary.com:
(1) I'll see that the problem is dealt with.
my variant:
(2) I'll see that the problem will be dealt with.

To me, (1) is wrong because, as far as I understand its meaning, dealing with the problem will be happening in the future, so we must use (2).
Why is (1) correct?
What's the difference between (1) and (2)?

An update:
Maybe the that-clause in (1) is in the covert subjunctive. Is it so?
If so, we can rewrite it using a usual subjunctive form:
(3) I'll see that the problem be dealt with.
Is (3) correct?

6
  • 1
    It is idiom. Similarly "I will make sure you catch the train." The action is "catch the train" and in the question the action is "dealt with". There is no subjunctive in the statement. Jul 6 at 18:30
  • @WeatherVane Is (2) correct? Does it mean the same as (1)? Thanks.
    – Loviii
    Jul 6 at 18:37
  • 1
    Example 2 means the same but is not idiomatic. You already use the future tense in "I'll see" so then it is a statement about what will be in the future. Alternatively, just "The problem will be dealt with". Jul 6 at 18:38
  • @WeatherVane Will (1) be idiomatic if we rewrite it the following way?: "I'll see that the problem has been dealt with." Thanks.
    – Loviii
    Jul 6 at 19:02
  • 1
    You say dealing with the problem will be happening in the future, so we must use (2) - but this is something very subtle and specific to English. From the perspective of now, it is in the future, so you say "I will make sure", but in the future, "dealing with it" is simply a current fact, not "in the future" any more.
    – stangdon
    Jul 6 at 19:31

1 Answer 1

2

Only the first sentence is correct.

Even though it refers to an event in the future, when "see that" has the function of "ensure that", the structure is: [ "see (to it) that" + clause with present tense ]

It can be any present tense:

I'll see (to it) that she leaves the party by 9 pm.
I'll see (to it) that she is heading home by 9 pm.
I'll see (to it) that she has left the party by 9 pm.

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