When we want to indicate that we think a past situation (seen from a present viewpoint) is certain, we use will(or won't) have + past particle:
ex1) As you will have noticed, he has cut off his beard. (the past(you noticed) seen from a present viewpoint)
ex2) They will have reached home by now. (the past(they reached home) seen from a present viewpoint)
cf1) Next Thursday, I will have owned my present car for exactly 20 years. (future perfect)
cf2) When the trees are all cut down, something of great value will have been lost. (future perfect)
(from Advanced Grammar in Use 1st edition by Martin Hewings)
According to the above explanation from AGU 1st ed., I think "I can't think why he will have been willing to accuse me yesterday" is grammatically correct.
(In the above sentence, I think, the speaker("I") feels like the hypothetical past situation(he was willing to accuse me yesterday) seen from a present viewpoint is certain.)
Is "I can't think why he will have been willing to accuse me yesterday" grammatically correct?