Here is a question I found in one book of grammar \ No grammar tears :

 All of them------ I. 

( is , am , has been , has been ) choice 3 is repeated.

All of them am I ? I think it is not correct though it can mean ( I am all of them --inverted)

But I am absolutely think it is ( one not I ) All of them is one.

I tested in Google Ngram viewer and found result.

Is it correct to use a singular verb in such instance ?

Thank you in advance

  • 3
    The inverted "all of them am I" is correct, cf. the uninverted "I am all of them". The singular verb "am" agrees with the singular subject "I". Note, though, that in "All of them are expected", "all of them" is a plural subject so the verb is plural "are".
    – BillJ
    Aug 17, 2023 at 10:39
  • 4
    @BillJ - It's a very unusual sentence, though, and not much use to a learner. It appears that the author, Marthus-Adden Zimboiant, does not have English as his first language. Aug 17, 2023 at 10:45

1 Answer 1


Yes, you would need a plural verb form there. But even with the correct form, the sentences "All of them are I" and "All of them have been I" don't make any sense. I would question this book's reliability.

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