The following quotation (with a link to the source) is from a title to an Amazon product review.

Not selling the product as they claim it to be.

I can understand the meaning, but not figure out the syntactic structure.

I have found the same construction used in the Cambridge Dictionary:

To accept something as it appears to be.

Seemingly, 'selling' and 'to accept' are non-finite phrases. The two sentences have very similar structure, except that 'the product' is different from something,and I am not sure whether this is the point .

According to my information, following the verb 'be' there often is a complement, but here the verb ends the sentence. Is there something omitted? Or is there another process at work of which I am unaware?

  • I'm closing this question because it's bad English, and not from a reliable source (a random Amazon reviewer).
    – gotube
    Oct 19, 2023 at 3:27
  • @gotube Ok,thanks.
    – Mr. Wang
    Oct 19, 2023 at 3:46
  • 2
    @gotube Hi, I have come across the same structure 'accept something as it appears to be'. After google,I have found some other similar sentences,i.e. 'accept things as they are'. So, are these also bad usages?
    – Mr. Wang
    Oct 20, 2023 at 5:24
  • No, those usages are correct and natural. The one you gave has several problems with it and isn't worth correcting. It's certainly not worth learning from.
    – gotube
    Oct 20, 2023 at 21:26
  • 2
    That example may be awkward, but there's nothing wrong with it grammatically. I forget the grammatical name of the process, but the complement of the verb is brought to the front - a similar thing happens in relative clauses (eg "the man who he appeared to be" and some Wh-questions (eg "What did you think it was?")
    – Colin Fine
    Oct 20, 2023 at 21:50


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