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From Jim Miller. (2002). An Introduction to English Syntax. p.133.

Syntax is of interest (as is morphology too) because without syntax human beings would be unable to construct complex messages conveying information about complex situations, proposals or ideas.

'as' seems to have the same function as 'and'. But I can't find similar usage anywhere else, including in mainstream dictionaries. A statement before 'as' is often like a statement after 'as'.But this sentence seems to mean the opposite.

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    It's redundant, as you suspect. The best option here in terms of style is to delete "too". Also, I must remark... What a truistic sentence! And one that's surprising to see 133 pages into an introduction to syntax. Oh well — I guess that's not at issue here. Oct 26, 2023 at 10:37
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    "as is" is absolutely fine here. It means something like "so too is" in this context. I don't think you need "too" as written, but it's not wrong, perhaps a little redundant.
    – Billy Kerr
    Oct 26, 2023 at 12:05
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    If you can be bothered to read far enough down (it is a very long entry), the meaning of "as" is in Merriam-Webster: "as pronoun 2: a fact that: is a foreigner, as is evident from his accent". It's often used with an inversion. "Too" is just an adverb used in a very common way (although slightly unnecessary, it's emphatic).
    – Stuart F
    Oct 26, 2023 at 15:51
  • Your title asks about the word "too", but your question body asks about the word "as". Which are you asking? Or are you asking both because they're related?
    – gotube
    Oct 26, 2023 at 22:44
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    @gotube Yes, for the sake of 'as', I think 'too' is superfluous and unreasonable. So body is an interpretation of the title. I am trying to make the question more accurate.
    – Mr. Wang
    Oct 26, 2023 at 22:50

1 Answer 1

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Here, "as" means roughly "and so is/does/etc. X".

Collins defines it this way:

6. conjunction
You use as ... to indicate that something ... is done in the same way as something else.
The book was banned in the U.S., as were two subsequent books.

This definition only covers actions ("happens", "is done"), but it also applies to state verbs, like "be". So your sentence means:

Syntax is of interest (and so is morphology) ...

The "too" in the original is redundant -- the phrase has the same meaning with or without it, and both ways are correct:

Syntax is of interest (as is morphology) ...

This means "as" does not have the meaning "and" because this is bad semantics, and probably bad grammar:

*Syntax is of interest (and morphology is) ...

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  • When to use inversion? Are there any rules?
    – Mr. Wang
    Oct 26, 2023 at 23:00
  • @Mr.Wang Inversion? Why are you asking about that?
    – gotube
    Oct 26, 2023 at 23:04
  • Can you say the same thing without having to invert it? That is, "as morphology is(too)"
    – Mr. Wang
    Oct 27, 2023 at 3:43
  • Sure, "Syntax is of interest (as morphology is)" is correct, but would be more natural with "just as..."
    – gotube
    Oct 27, 2023 at 4:38
  • @Mr.Wang I'd say it's awkward to use "just as" with an event that happened after the main clause, but I wouldn't say it's ungrammatical.
    – gotube
    Oct 27, 2023 at 5:41

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