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a. You have both talked to him during many a party.

b. They have all talked to him during many a party.


c. You have both talked to him during many parties.

d. They have all talked to him during many parties.

Do these necessarily mean that you/they have talked to him during the same dinner parties?

Do these necessarily mean that you/they were together when they talked to him?

Many thanks

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    Whether there are two or many more addressees, none of your utterances imply anything about them ever even being at the same dinner parties, let alone speaking to him at the same time and place. What makes you think otherwise, apart from your own ideas about what's likely in the real world? Mar 15 at 2:27
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    Note that They have each talked to him during many parties strongly implies they spoke to him at different parties, or at least, at different times (separate conversations) in the same parties. But all carries no such implication either way. Mar 15 at 2:30

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You have both talked to him during many parties.

This does not imply that the two people talked to him at the same time, or at the same party. Essentially it means:

You (person 1) talked to him at many parties and you (person 2) also talked to him at many parties.

The meaning is exactly the same for "all" instead of "both". "Many a party" is just and old-fashioned way of saying "many parties" and doesn't change the meaning.

If you wanted to specifically mean parties where both people talked to him you could say:

There have been many parties where you both talked to him.

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