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In addition, poverty was more common among people with children compared to that among those who did not live with their kids.

That here refers to poverty and I feel like I should compare the poverty among one group to that among another, but it sounds much neater to me without the "that among" part.

What is your advice here?

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    Only if you consider it to be elided, which is a dubious interpretation. Forget neatness here and focus on grammatical and semantic correctness.
    – BillJ
    Mar 19 at 8:46
  • Grammar issues aside, clarity is lacking. What are you comparing, exactly? Households where elderly parents are living with their grown children and households of elderly parents living apart from their grown children, and their poverty rates? Or households of young parents with children and households of elderly parents living apart from their grown children?
    – TimR
    Mar 19 at 9:14
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    On the grammar of the comparison, " ... more common among X than among Y". "compared to" is redundant; the idea is already expressed with "more common".
    – TimR
    Mar 19 at 9:45
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    I've found that examples using beer always go over well.
    – TimR
    Mar 19 at 13:12
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    Children? Then kids? "In addition, poverty was more common among people with kids than without kids." Mar 19 at 14:27

1 Answer 1

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No, because then you'd be comparing poverty with people.

As written, it compares poverty with poverty.

The pronoun 'that' refers back to the metric of poverty which was previously mentioned.

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    The phrase, compared to that among, in the original sentence could also be replace with the much easer to read, than to. In addition, poverty was more common among people with children than to those who did not live with their kids.
    – EllieK
    Mar 19 at 12:32
  • So we can use "to" in place of "among"? Could you please expand on it?
    – Ken Adams
    Mar 19 at 15:39
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    @EllieK do you mean "than among"? Mar 19 at 16:56
  • @BenjaminGrange - Indeed I do. Nice catch.
    – EllieK
    Mar 19 at 18:50

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