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In because about my last question before so I'm learning Past Participles in Participle Phrases now. I'm curious about example that I read from this http://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/past_participles.htm

The example is :

Battered by the wind, John fell to his knees.

How about if I say :

John had battered by the wind before he fell to his knees.

Are they interchangeable or mine is incorrect ? And when to use Past Participles in Participle Phrases?

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In your second example, you would have to write:

John had been battered by the wind before he fell to his knees.

As you wrote it, had battered expects an object, for example:

John had hit the nail, but it split the board.

Also when you write:

Battered by the wind, John fell to his knees.

really it is a shortened form of:

Having been battered by the wind, John fell to his knees.

Another way to say this:

John, battered by the wind, fell to his knees.

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First of all, let's talk about the meaning of batter. It means to hit hard repeatedly such as he was battering at the door. Similarly, the wind or rain batters you; we don't batter them. So it's wrong to say that John had battered by the wind before he fell to his knees. The right sentence is "John had been battered by the wind before he fell to his knees". To form the past perfect in the passive voice, we use "been" after had.

It's correct to say "Battered by the wind, John fell to his knees". The past participle has been used here as an adjective. However, we can also say "John fell to his knees after he had been battered by the wind, John fell to his knees after he was battered by the wind and as you said John had been battered by the wind before he fell to his knees". All these sentences have the same sense and are interchangeable.

As for the use of the past participle (also called the third form of a verb), it is used to form the passive voice, the perfect tenses. It's also used as an adjective such as "battered by the wind, John fell to his knees".

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