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I'm not native speaker I'm studying English now

I have a two questions below.

I already asked to GPT but he could not give me a satisfactory answer.

so any help would be apprciating

1.

A: why didn't you buy any fruit at the supermarket? B: Their produce can't compare with what they have at the farmer's market

What is indicated by "Their" and "they" each?

2.

A: You ate a lot at the buffet today. B: Having skipped breakfast, I was hungry.

"Having had skipped breakfast" can also be used in that position?

Since I had skipped breakfast before feeling hungry, using 'Having Had' would be grammatically correct, wouldn't it?

3
  • 1
    How do you know GPT is male? Commented Jul 10 at 7:36
  • 1
    Asking two questions is bad form - we vote to close questions on this basis as they have no clear focus. I've offered an answer to the question in your title, I'd suggest maybe an edit of the question and ask your second separately.
    – Astralbee
    Commented Jul 10 at 8:07
  • 1
    GPT is not a he; it an it.
    – Lambie
    Commented Jul 10 at 14:27

3 Answers 3

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Question 1

A: Why didn't you buy any fruit at the supermarket?
B: Their produce can't compare with what they have at the farmer's market.

The question is, what do their and they refer to? These two words are pronouns, and they will refer to objects either stated in the text or implied by the larger context. In this case we have both examples. Their refers to the supermarket. Their produce is the produce you would get from the supermarket. But they points forward to the farmers' market. They means "The suppliers who choose to sell their goods at the farmers' market."

So the expanded sentence would be: The supermarket's produce can't compare to what local farmers have at the farmers' market.

Question 2

  1. Having skipped breakfast, I was hungry.
  2. Having had skipped breakfast, I was hungry.
  3. Since I had skipped breakfast, I was hungry.

Your question asks if these are all correct, and the answer is no. Sentence 1 and 3 are the correct options, but sentence 2 is wrong. You have correctly recognised that breakfast was skipped before I was hungry, so the past perfect can be used in that setting. But sentence 1 and sentence 3 are the two different ways we correctly do this. Sentence 2 is mixing those two options up. You can have sentence 1 or sentence 3, but not both.

2

'They' is a versatile pronoun - it can mean a group of specific people, it can mean an individual of unknown or unspecified gender, and it also has a more generic use which can mean nobody in particular or people in general. For example "they don't make things like they used to" is a generalisation about any person or company who manufactures things.

In your example, "their produce" refers to whoever runs the supermarket (or just the organisation in general), and the second "they" refers to the retailers at the farmers market (or that market in general).

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Their produce can't compare with what they have at the farmer's market.

Their refers to the supermarket, its owner or operator. They refers to the operators of the farmer’s market.

This is fine:

Having skipped breakfast, I was hungry.

The gerund-participial clause is tenseless. In this example, it is similar to As I had skipped breakfast.

Having had skipped breakfast can’t work. However, this is possible:

Having had no breakfast, I was hungry.

Edit

The verb had here is not auxiliary (which takes ‘skipped’); it is lexical (like ‘eaten’) and hence needs a noun or noun phrase, for example, no breakfast.

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