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Do you consider these wrong?

I don't listen to this song any more after I learnt who wrote it.

I don't talk to her any more after I fell out with her.

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    ... since ... might be better?
    – James K
    Commented Aug 11 at 7:54
  • or "now that I've learned who wrote it" ; "... now that I've fallen out with her".
    – TimR
    Commented Aug 12 at 12:16
  • They aren't wrong but the first seems and the second clearly is contrived, not natural. Commented Aug 17 at 19:08

2 Answers 2

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Your sentences:

I don't listen to this song any more after I learnt who wrote it.

I don't talk to her any more after I fell out with her.

would be understood but to my AmE ear they are not perfectly idiomatic and fall into a kind of marginal no-man's-land. The problem is after — which you already seem to know.

Here are some other ways to express your sort of situation and which strike my ear as idiomatic; we can compare the differences between them and your sentences:

Past-tense in both clauses:

I stopped listening to this song after I learnt who wrote it .

I stopped talking to her after I fell out with her.

Present-tense in the first clause and present perfect in the second clause:

I don't listen to this song any more, now that I've learned who wrote it.

I don't talk to her any more, now that we have fallen out.

Present-tense in the first clause with past-tense in the second clause using ever since and not since:

I don't listen to this song any more, ever since I learned who wrote it.

I don't talk to her any more, ever since we fell out.

I don't listen to this song any more, not since I learned who wrote it.

I don't talk to her any more, not since we fell out.

After situates things temporally at the time that follows upon those past actions (learning who wrote it and falling out) but it does not look forward to the present. For that reason it doesn't work well with present-tense forms in the matrix clause:

I went to the theater six weeks ago to see a movie.

-- What have you been doing after you saw that movie? barely marginal; well nigh ungrammatical

-- What do you no longer do after you saw that movie? barely marginal; well nigh ungrammatical

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Edit

The two sentences are fine. The adverb any more tells us the situations of not listening and not talking are current and will continue. Hence we use don’t.

I don't listen to this song any more after I learnt who wrote it.

I don't talk to her any more after I fell out with her.

Edit

This would be better, with the gerund-participial clause and since:

I don't talk to her any more since falling out with her.

Since is better because it refers to the whole period from then till now. After points back to a particular time in the past. Compare with this sentence:

I stopped talking to her after falling out with her.

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    In US English, a distinction exists between 'any more' (used as a determiner), and 'anymore' (used as an adverb). In UK English, strictly speaking, 'anymore' is typically considered incorrect, and any more is the correct spelling for both parts of speech. However, 'anymore', is becoming increasingly common, largely because it is widely used in American English. Commented Aug 11 at 8:15
  • Thanks, @Michael Harvey. You’re right. Now I see that this is also mentioned under Note in this link. I’ve edited my answer. Commented Aug 11 at 9:32
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    Don't you think that this is more correct "I don't talk to her any more after falling out with her."
    – user1425
    Commented Aug 11 at 11:52
  • Thanks, @user1425. Yes, it's better with the gerund-participial clause. I've edited my answer. Commented Aug 11 at 16:08
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    I’m with @JamesK that these sound much more idiomatic with since than with after. Commented Aug 11 at 19:28

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