I was thinking about the possibility in a phrase having a ditransitive verb as to if the object pronoun "it" could be used as the direct object. For example;
I give the pencil to him
I give him it. (is this last option correct?)
Greetings.
I was thinking about the possibility in a phrase having a ditransitive verb as to if the object pronoun "it" could be used as the direct object. For example;
I give the pencil to him
I give him it. (is this last option correct?)
Greetings.
I agree with https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ditransitive_verb#In_English; I give him it
sounds perfectly fine to me, but to some other native speakers this will sound a bit weird, and for them I give it to him
is preferred instead.
English has a number of generally ditransitive verbs, such as give, grant, and tell and many transitive verbs that can take an additional argument (commonly a beneficiary or target of the action), such as pass, read, bake, etc.:
He gave Mary ten dollars. He passed Paul the ball. Jean read him the books. She is baking him a cake. I am mailing Sam some lemons.
Alternatively, English grammar allows for these sentences to be written with a preposition (to or for): (See also Dative shift)
He gave ten dollars to Mary. He passed the ball to Paul. Jean read the books to/for him. She is baking a cake for him. I am mailing some lemons to Sam., etc.
The latter form is grammatically correct in every case, but in some dialects the former (without a preposition) is considered ungrammatical, or at least unnatural-sounding, when the direct object is a pronoun (as in
He gave me it
orHe gave Fred it
).
I gave him it.
does not sound idiomatic to me when it is fully articulated. However, this
Where'd that little boy get that pen-knife?!
--I gave'm it.
sounds idiomatic but regional, non-standard.