Consider the following:

  • From none of the documents can it be taken that cats like mice.
  • From none of the documents it can be taken that cats like mice.

To me, the second Option sounds correct.

However, with

  • In None of the books are cats mentioned.
  • In None of the books cats are mentioned.

the second, non-inverted Option seems to be correct.

Can anyone solve the mystery?

  • "However" implies a difference between the first and the second part of your question, but they are the same (in both cases no inversion). None has nothing to do with your question, because you can replace the first part of your sentences with any other indication of a source, e.g. "In three glass jars", "On the entire internet", without changing the grammatical structure of what follows. You are basically asking whether or not inversion occurs when you start a sentence with a prepositional phrase. Maybe you'd like to reword your question to reflect that. – oerkelens Oct 28 '14 at 14:05

Good question, made me think :-)

In both cases the inverted subject-auxiliary forms sounded/looked better to my ear/eye, for the same reason that we use subject-verb inversion after "in no case", for example one could say: "In no case were cats mentioned in the documents." According to this explanation, the subject and verb/auxiliary must be inverted when the:

sentence or main clause begins with certain negative or almost negative expressions

The explanation given doesn't explicitly mention the clauses beginning "from none" but it is easy to find examples online using a google search.

In short, yes, clauses beginning "in none of" or "from none of" do require subject-verb inversion.

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