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a.He seems as if he hasn't slept for days. (he hasn't slept for days)

b.He seems as if he didn't sleep for days. ( ? )

c.He seems as if he hadn't slept for days. (it seems that he hasn't slept for days, but he (probably) has or we don't know whether he has or not)

d.He seemed as if he hadn't slept for days ( is it past form of sentence a ? )

e.He seemed as if he didn't slept for days ( can we say ? if we can what would it mean)

f.He seemed as if he hasn't slept for days ( can we say ? if we can what would it mean)

So how can we say the past form of sentence c ?

Do sentence b and sentence c have similar meaning?

Thanks

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Yes, D is the past form of A.

Only A and D have consistency in verb usage.

All your other examples are ambiguous at best (B) and ungrammatical at worst (C, E and F, ) because you are mixing tenses. I cannot tell what you hoped to express by these.

In E, "didn't slept" is simply an incorrect verb formation (that's why ultrasawblade corrected it to "didn't sleep.)

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He seems as if he hadn't slept for days.

The past tense of this is

He seemed as if he hadn't slept for days.


He seems as if he didn't sleep for days. (corrected)

He seems as if he hadn't slept for days.

The first sentence can mean that "he went through stretches of days at a time when he did not sleep" - the did makes it seem like he purposefully prevented himself from sleeping.

The second sentence won't express that, without context. In the second sentence, something is preventing him from sleeping other than himself - we don't know what that something is yet.

Note that the first sentence can mean this too, but it's more clearly not expressing habit if you use the second sentence.

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