I couldn't understand this explanation even though I know what relative clause is:
Omission of the relative pronoun whom is particularly common when the verb is linked to a preposition. Compare the following 'defining' relative clauses:
'The friend who I went out with last night is anorexic.' (Grammatically incorrect, but sometimes/often heard.)
'The friend I went out with last night is going to have a baby.' (Omission of the relative pronoun would be the most common occurrence in these sentences.)
'The friend with whom I went out last night has bought a new car.' (Quite improbable, almost impossible, because, as conversational English, it is far too clumsy.)
However, in this statement, which is much more formal, it is possible to link the preposition with 'whom':
- 'The senator, with whom I dined last night, will be the next President of the United States of America.'
In example of 'The friend who I went out with last night is anorexic', relative clause is defining relative clause and the relative pronoun is the object. So relative pronoun could be omitted but even if it is not but why is the first sentence grammatically incorrect?
can we say "we use whom instead of who when the relative pronoun is the object " if we can I think this is only accurate form "The friend whom I went out with last night is anorexic" ?