I want to say that that person is me. But then, precisely, I want to keep the pronoun in place to add some spice and power to it! Otherwise, better choices are... That person is me/that's me, I'm that 'he' etc.

The context (hypothetical) is someone unknowingly describing 'he' and then I reveal that I'm that 'he'.

"Yeah, I know she is mad in love with someone whom I have never seen. And you know what, he is very mysterious. I have heard that he practices black magic as well. At times, she behaves that someone has doggoned her. Do you know him?"

And I reply cunningly...

(chuckling) I am he/him.

I lean toward him. As we say... "...hey...see there...that's him"

But Jesus says... I am he!.

2 Answers 2


Usually, I am him would be the right one because him is the object.

But in a more complex sentence it could be he, e.g. Who's in charge here? I am he (who's in charge here). This construction sounds pompous, you would usually answer with just It's me, me or I am, but it's something you could see in literature or a film.

Also, I wouldn't trust the Bible or other antique books as a reference for grammar or vocabulary, since the English used in them may be archaic or overly complex for today's standards.

  • 2
    Although I agree that the Bible may contain language that is now antiquated, it's interesting to realise that the King James translation has actually contributed enormously to the standardisation of current modern English. It's actually a great source for language - if used correctly. Not trusting it (in matters of language) seems to be a hard advice.
    – oerkelens
    Dec 19, 2014 at 9:08
  • I agree, but I'd give more weight to modern dictionaries or grammar guides. Anyway, I wouldn't use it as my only source unless it's the only one available.
    – QOI
    Dec 19, 2014 at 9:29
  • 2
    "because him is the object." <== Is it really an object?
    – F.E.
    Dec 19, 2014 at 19:14
  • In this instance the KJV may not be the biggest help. How it is written is 'I am he', indicating that the word in italics is not in the greek. Which it is not; transliterated as ego eimi, or the spare I am, or I AM, which also poses a problem for translators, is he referring to himself as a divine being or not. But I digress. Nevertheless, I am one who gives credence to the phrase 'I am he', because 'he' is a subj complement. And thus 'Toys R Us' should be 'Toys R We'. :) In practice, I usually say This is him to someone looking for me.
    – user6951
    Dec 20, 2014 at 2:42

In the sentence, "I am he," the "he" is not an object. It is a predicate nominative renaming the subject. That is why "he," as odd as it sounds to us, is correct. Him is objective case, as in "I hit him." "Him" is the object of the action verb.

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