Which one is correct ? I were or I was
We always use I have which implies that I is plural.
Then why don't we use I are ?
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I have does not imply that I is plural; it implies only that I is not 3rd person singular (3sg).
Be is the only English verb which has distinct forms for the 1st person singular (1sg): am in the present indicative and was in the past indicative.
All other English verbs, including HAVE, have
Here are the forms for BE, HAVE, and a representative 'regular' verb PLAY; forms for specific persons and numbers are marked with a * (but see the footnote).
VERB: BE HAVE PLAY
general form: are have play
1sg form: am* (same) (same)
3sg form: is* has* plays*
general form: were had played
1sg & 3sg form: was* (same) (same)
‡ Modal verbs have only one; they do not have a distinct 3sg form
∗ Note that even these are not used in what traditional grammar calls "subjunctive" clauses—but that is another matter.
Unfortunately, English's conjugation system is not as fine-grained (that is, not as detailed) as many other languages. In particular, in general* the conjugations for first person (single and plural), second person (single and plural), and third person plural are all the same: I have, you have, we have, you all have, they have; I jump, you jump, we jump, you all jump, they jump. The one case that conjugates differently is third person singular: she has, he jumps.
*There are exceptions: for example "to be" conjugates differently in the first person singular: I am, you are, she is, we are, you all are, they are. But note that the second person singular and all the plural forms are still the same.