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Following is an excerpt from The Evolution of Physics, by Albert Einstein and Leonard Infeld:

Let us follow the motion of the idealized car on the idealized switchback as it begins to roll downward from the starting-point. As it moves its distance from the ground diminishes, but its speed increases. This sentence at first sight may remind us of one from a language lesson: "I have no pencil, but you have six oranges." It is not so stupid, however. There is no connection between my having no pencil and your having six oranges, but there is a very real correlation between the distance of the car from the ground and its speed. We can calculate the speed of the car at any moment if we know how high it happens to be above the ground, but we omit this point here because of its quantitative character which can best be expressed by mathematical formulae.

I wonder why have the author used "my" and "your" in place of "me" and "you" in the sentence, "...There is no connection between my(me) having no pencil and your(you) having six oranges..."

I am confused, about when to use "me" and when to use "my". E.g in the following sentence should I use "me" or "my"?

I was in real, no King, of the forest in the past. I am asking the Tiger to imagine a scenario in which I be king of the forest in past. Since, the sentence is present perfect the fact of my being the king in the past has present consequences and I am for sure, not King of the forest at present in that imaginary scenario --- the consequence is the fear of me in the pythons. The Tiger thinks that the fear in the Pythons would be because of something else not because of my(me?) being the King in the past. I am asking him, wouldn't my being the King in the past enough to make a fear of me in pythons?

Please explain me in simple English, when to use me and when to use my, while referring to myself? How do the sentences appear to native English speaker, when we replace me with my? I do not know technical English grammar, like gerund, verb or noun things.

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  • Either is correct; the version with a possessive gives the gerund a 'nounier' feel, the version with an objective gives the gerund a 'verbier' feel. See this question: ell.stackexchange.com/q/37280/32 Commented Jan 17, 2015 at 17:02
  • I think I saw a question similar to this (not what Stoney said). MWAHAHAHA, now I'm going to close it as duplicate, you better wish my not finding the question! Eh, :) just kidding.
    – M.A.R.
    Commented Jan 17, 2015 at 17:05
  • @MARamezani Could you tell me which question is the original version? That is, of which question is my question duplicate?
    – user31782
    Commented Jan 17, 2015 at 17:14
  • Still looking for it.
    – M.A.R.
    Commented Jan 17, 2015 at 17:45
  • Wait. That question does have an answer to yours. I think you should do some modifications. Sorry, but it's a duplicate already.
    – M.A.R.
    Commented Jan 17, 2015 at 18:40

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