2

Which is correct and why:

  1. She has been absent from work due to her illness.
  2. She has been absent from work due to illness.

Thanks.

What about the following sentences:

  1. He did not complete the race due to exhaustion.
  2. He did not complete the race due to his exhaustion.

Is the pronoun 'his' necessary in the sentence?

1

He did not complete the race due to exhaustion. He did not complete the race due to his exhaustion.

As the other answers allude to ("due to illness" = someone's illness; "due to her illness" = she was sick), "due to exhaustion" would probably be the runner's exhaustion, but might be someone else's. For precision, you'd want to keep "his exhaustion" in that example.

1

I think both are fine.

2) She has been absent from work due to (her) illness.

has an implied "her", even if it was not written.

If it was someone else who was ill, then you would say something like:

She has been absent from work due to an illness in the family.

If you need to be certain that the meaning is correctly understood, you should use 1. But in normal circumstances 2. should be understood OK.

1

Both are correct, but they don't mean exactly the same thing:

  1. She has been absent at work because she is sick
  2. She has been absent at work because someone is sick (and she could be that someone).

As far as the edit goes, again they are both correct. The "his" is not necessary, and is implied if you leave it out.

One isn't necessarily a better choice than the other. Stick with what you think your audience will like.

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