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I have been there a few times in the past.

Would it be equal to:

I have been there a few times before.

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  • Any reason why you think it might not be?
    – user3169
    Mar 26 '15 at 19:54
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When you name the exact tense as present perfect all you need to say, "I have been there." No harm in saying "I have been there before a few times." The time of "being there" is not important. When a friend whom you visit at his home says to you, "Join me for a lunch of pastrami sandwich and ice tea." And you came after you had lunch. There is no need to say anything but, "I have already eaten."

I have been there a few times in the past is superfluous. You could not have been there in the future so, if you feel like giving extra information that is OK.

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No they do not have the same meaning, except in certain contexts.

I have been there a few times in the past means that you have been there a few times before the present time.
I have been there a few times before means that you have been there a few times before a time previously mentioned in the conversation.

So it is common to hear constructions like:
I have been there a few times before and many times since.

Of course, if no previous time was mentioned in the conversation, then before will refer to the present and both sentences will then have the same meaning.

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Yes, they both have the same meaning. Usually the second example is more common in conversation.

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