Kant introduced a technical term for the imperatives that tell us to take actions as means to ends (goals). He called
theypresuppose that we have the ends to which the actions
theycommand are means (Kant 1997a, 24-27/4:413-16). Since for most ends it is not necessary that we have
them, when we don’t, the hypothetical imperatives presupposing that we do are not true.
I admit that I must improve my reading comprehension, but are the pronouns here (as greyed) used ambiguously? Could anyone please clarify the pronouns? Here's my guess at the syntax:
we have the ends
to which the actions