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I got confused when my teacher's statements got contradicted. Unfortunately I was not able to clarify my doubt. The sentences were:
None of the employees working in the office have invested in mutual funds.
Neither of the boys has submitted their records.
Why this variation in both the sentences? Could anyone explain the correct usage? My understanding says both should contain have. But I'm not sure.
PS: When I used has with the former he told its wrong and when I used have with latter one then again he said wrong.