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I got confused when my teacher's statements got contradicted. Unfortunately I was not able to clarify my doubt. The sentences were:

  • None of the employees working in the office have invested in mutual funds.

  • Neither of the boys has submitted their records.

Why this variation in both the sentences? Could anyone explain the correct usage? My understanding says both should contain have. But I'm not sure.

PS: When I used has with the former he told its wrong and when I used have with latter one then again he said wrong.

marked as duplicate by WendiKidd Apr 19 '13 at 21:09

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  • Hi Sudhir, a question has been previously asked about neither/none (and "no one" as well) and whether or not they take singular or plural verbs. I'm closing this as a duplicate; if you have any questions or concerns about this please feel free to @ message me. Thanks! – WendiKidd Apr 19 '13 at 21:10

With none of and neither of, you can use the singular or the plural verb.

None of these pens works/work.

We have three sons but none of them lives/live nearby.

Neither of them has/have a car.

Clearly, it is not "Neither answer are correct."

Related questions

  • You're sure that we can use either one i.e the singular or the plural verb? – Sudhir Apr 19 '13 at 15:55
  • The examples I used in my answer are taken from the OALD (Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary). – kiamlaluno Apr 19 '13 at 16:06
  • Interesting topic.. let us know more, kiam. – toha May 12 '16 at 2:09

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