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  1. The women outnumber the men.
  2. The women are outnumbered by the men.

I know the first sentence means that the count of the women is more than the count of the men. And I know that the meaning of the second sentence is the reverse: the count of the men is more than the count of the women. But why?

I am really confused. Why doesn't the second sentence mean: the count of the women is increased because of the count of the men?

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    Note that your #2 example is the passive of: "The men outnumber the women."
    – F.E.
    Commented May 16, 2015 at 10:20
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    Here is a quick guide for passive from English Grammar Today (Cambridge Dictionaries Online). Their example about books is easier: "Cambridge University Press published this book. (active)" and "This book was published by Cambridge University Press. (passive)" - you wouldn't think that the book published the publisher.
    – Lucky
    Commented May 17, 2015 at 18:41

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What you are referring to is the difference between an Active Voice and a Passive Voice. Here's the basic difference in grammar.

  1. The women outnumber the men. - This is an Active Voice
  2. The men are outnumbered by the women. - This is a Passive Voice

Your second sentence is just the passive for the following sentence:

  • The men outnumber the women.
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  • Thisreminds me of the zombie test for passive voice: the men are outnumbered [by zombies].
    – James Random
    Commented May 20, 2018 at 20:44

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