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Would you help me interpret the sentence "Whether loyalty in its application amounts to virtue depends on its extent and its object"?

I guess it means that loyalty can be good or bad, dependent on its extent and object. For example, flattery and unconditional loyalty to the Nazis don't amount to virtue, while soldier's loyalty to his nation would amount to virtue.

Does the phrase 'in its application' mean 'how it works' in this sentence?

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  • "in its application" means "acting or behaving loyally", not just merely "feeling loyal" or "the idea of loyalty". Whether action motivated by loyalty is virtuous depends on...
    – TimR
    May 19, 2015 at 19:21

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The author appears to be saying that the question of whether loyalty is good or bad (virtuous) depends on how far the individual is willing to go for this principle (extent) and what/who the individual is demonstrating their loyalty to (object).

I'm guessing the question then comes down to whether the object of one's loyalty is itself 'virtuous', and whether said loyalty might drive one to perform acts that are in themselves 'not virtuous'.

Keep in mind that the use of the term 'virtuous' places all judgments based on this statement in highly subjective territory, so I would be cautious with those examples as you've provided them. Why should a soldier's loyalty to their country, for instance, be regarded as inherently virtuous? This depends on whether the country is virtuous, and there's not a country in the world today for which you could not find vastly differing opinions as to the status of said nation's 'virtue'.

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With reservations for not having more context, your interpretation seems sound enough.

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