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  1. One group was taxed a Benjamin if they didn't do X, and the second was given a bonus of the same amount for doing X.

  2. One group was taxed $100 if they didn't do X, and the second was given a bonus for the same amount if they did X.

I guess both options are valid but I'm wonderig which one is more natural to (mostly) American eyes.

  • Editing your question to nullify answers is not an appreciable deed. Regarding your question, both for and of versions have meanings, but the for version's meaning is so off it might not be what you're looking for. I guess it really helps if you provide more context: What is this the same amount referring to, exactly? – M.A.R. Jun 22 '15 at 15:46
  • Noted. Un-edited. Will add details. – zerohedge Jun 22 '15 at 15:47
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Well, firstly, being taxed "a Benjamin" is highly colloquial, in case you're not aware of that.

As for "for" vs. "of", "of" is much more correct to me. I'm not even sure if "for" is correct at all.

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