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Examples:

  1. I have a pen. I've a pen.
  2. He has something. He's something.
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    The second would be understood as "He is something".
    – Stephie
    Jul 4, 2015 at 12:17
  • @Stephie OK, thank you for telling this to me. What do you think about the first sentence and my question?
    – Gurpreet
    Jul 4, 2015 at 12:19
  • Good read here Jul 4, 2015 at 12:46

1 Answer 1

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  1. Definitely yes. Although such usage sounds strange to American ears, it is used in British English. For example, from a headline yesterday in the Guardian:

"I’ve a house full of stuff I no longer need … how do I get rid of it?" http://www.theguardian.com/money/blog/2015/jul/04/junk-unwanted-items-selling-ebay-car-boot-sales

Someone from the US would be more likely to say "I have a house" or "I've got a house"

  1. Yes, though also mostly confined to British English. "He's a house in Bristol, after all." And @Stephie, since "he's" is the correct contraction for both "He has" and "He is", the listener would need to rely on context. In my example it is more likely the man in question HAS a house than he IS a house, but both are technically correct interpretations.

Note: I answered without seeing Lucian's link. Since my answer adds nothing beyond a citation on actual use, this could be merged as the same question answered better there.

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