3

Let us suppose something happened first to John and then to me. Is it grammatically correct to say:

It happened the same to me as John.

And if it is not, how would express this meaning, then?

4

The same happened to me as happened to John.

The same happened to me as to John.

The same thing happened to me as it did to John.

  • Or another (I think): "The same as happened to John, happened to me" – Avon Jul 20 '15 at 10:29
  • 2
    Note: the original phrasing is grammatically wrong, but you will hear that construction in speech from time to time, simply because we do not always speak grammatically perfect at all times. – Cort Ammon - Reinstate Monica Jul 20 '15 at 16:16
6

It would need to be:

It happened the same to me as to John.

You need to repeat the "to". In order to make it easier to read though, I would add another couple of words:

It happened the same to me as it did to John.

  • Why does it need to be this way? That is, what makes the asker's original sentence grammatically incorrect? – talrnu Jul 20 '15 at 16:53
2

No, it's not grammatically correct. To express that, you'd say "what happened to John also happened to me" or simply "what happened to John happened to me ..."

  • What makes it grammatically incorrect? – talrnu Jul 20 '15 at 16:52
  • 1
    Because it is parsed is "[It happened] [the same] [to me] as [to John]", not "[It happened] [the same] to [me as John]." Note the difference between "as" and "and" - both of the following are correct: "[It happened] [the same] to [me and John]" and "It happened the same [to me] and [to John]". The phrase "me as John" could mean something like "me pretending to be John" or "me acting the part of John in a play or a film" but that doesn't make sense in your original sentence. – alephzero Jul 20 '15 at 23:58
  • @alephzero - great explanation, do you mind if I edit that into my answer? – AndyT Jul 21 '15 at 8:06
2

I would say: The same thing that happened to John happened to me, too.

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