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I feel when we use "comma + which", the clause right before "comma" can act as a subject or object of the clause after "which". so I made 5 sentences to make sure I understand right.

  1. I get up late, which I feel I have to fix.

I get up late is a object of "fix".

  1. I eat a fruit every morning, which I think is really great for my health.

I eat a fruit every morning is a subject of "is".

  1. I drink a cup of coffee once I finish eating lunch, which I think makes me more productive.

I drink a cup of coffee once I finish eating lunch is a subject of "makes".

  1. My girlfriend is a vegetarian, which is what I like about her.

My girlfriend is a vegetarian is a subject of "is".

  1. My girlfriend is a vegetarian, which I like about my girlfriend.

My girlfriend is a vegetarian is an object of "like".

Am I right to think this way?

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    Except in the narrowest technical sense, you have nailed it. (Actually, which is the subject/object in these cases; it is a 'variable' whose 'value' is the main clauses. But that's grammatical pettifoggery.)
    – StoneyB on hiatus
    Aug 3, 2015 at 3:01
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    @StoneyB, is that not a good answer? I suggest you make it an answer!
    – Omnidisciplinarianist
    Aug 4, 2015 at 1:08
  • @Omnidisciplinarianist I am reluctant to post the single word "Yes" as an Answer.
    – StoneyB on hiatus
    Aug 4, 2015 at 1:52
  • @StoneyB, but you also have the phrase "grammatical pettifoggery". I think that's worth an answer.
    – TBridges42
    Aug 5, 2015 at 17:17
  • @TBridges42 But as long as I leave buried in comments I can reuse it somewhere spectacular.
    – StoneyB on hiatus
    Aug 5, 2015 at 22:51

1 Answer 1

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In reality, yes. In grammar-land, though, 'which' is actually the subject/object - 'which' refers to those sentences, though.

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