OP's participle clause "Having nothing left to do , paula went home = Since paula had nothing left to do,she went home"

would the meaning not be different if i change it into "paula went home ,having nothing to do"? or it's my preference whether i precede it or not,right?

another example:" i gave him a bunch of flowers , thinking he will like me more" Does it euqual "thinking he will like me more , i gave him a bunch of flowers


The meaning of

Having nothing left to do, Paula went home.

is the same as

Because she had nothing left to do, Paula went home.

You can change places of the clause in the latter sentence to get

Paula went home because she had nothing left to do.

(notice there is no comma there) and then turn the subordinate clause into a participle clause again:

Paula went home, having nothing left to do.

So, the answer is, yes, for participle clauses of the type "a reason for the action in the main clause" you can.

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