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What is the right sentences between this two, and why? I am always so confused sometimes when I have to choose between present perfect and past simple.

  1. I hoped that you would consider my application favourably.
  2. I have hoped that you would consider my application favourably.
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  • Non-continuous-ness of 'hope' is what I was taught (a long time ago), along with 'have', 'love', etc., like you point out. However, "I'm hoping that ..." is a very common phrase in AmE. Sep 26, 2015 at 11:38
  • E.V. Welcome to ELL! Would you consider to split the two questions into two separate questions? -- The first question "Is to hope a non-continuous verb?" is more about general guidelines for the usage of "hope". The second question "I hoped / have hoped" is more about the perfect aspect (i.e. the past simple vs. the present perfect). Sep 26, 2015 at 12:35
  • ok sure, I can split them
    – E.V.
    Sep 26, 2015 at 12:43

1 Answer 1

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I speak American English, and would understand

I hoped that you would consider my application favourably.

to refer to a past hope, for example, spoken by someone whose application had not been considered favorably, or by someone whose application had been considered favorably, if it were spoken jubilantly. In any case, the speaker no longer has the hope, either because the hopes were dashed or otherwise petered out, or because they came to fruition.

The use of the present perfect:

I have hoped that you would consider my application favorably.

strikes my ear as unidiomatic tense-wise. I would say "I have been hoping" if I wanted to convey the idea that my hope has been ongoing for some time now, and that it continues even now.

If I wanted to express the idea that I am in a state of ongoing hope:

I'm hoping that...

or the simple idea that I have a hope:

I hope that...

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